On Sunday morning, I am speaking on Purgatory. That leads to the issue of baptism for the dead (1 Corinthians 15:29).
When I was reading what others have written about it, the general consensus is that it does not mean vicarious baptism because it was not being practiced at the time by the church as a whole, but that we do not fully understand what it means.
One writer said that Paul appears to be making the point that detractors were denying the resurrection but that even pagans believed in the doctrine, since they were practicing vicarious baptism.
What do you think the passage means?