NKJV reads [with emphasis added]: “This punishment which was inflicted by the MAJORITY is sufficient for such a man.” ESV & NET also use “majority”. KJV & ASV use “many”.
QUESTION #1: Is is safe to conclude that NOT ALL of the Corinthian brethren obeyed Paul’s command in 1 Cor 5 (regarding withdrawing fellowship from the brother involved in sexual sin)? As I look at the Greek word pleion, this seems to be correct (but I’ll defer to the “experts” among us). Paul would have used a different term if ALL of the Christians in Corinth had heeded his command, right?
QUESTION #2: What about the FEW who did NOT obey (i.e., ones who did not withdraw from the erring brother after being commanded to do so)? We would understand this to be a sin, yet there is no instruction from the apostle to discipline them (not even a rebuke). What are we to conclude from this?
Any input is appreciated. This inquiry is more than hypothetical for me.
As a side note, our family trip out West was wonderful (Grand Canyon, Sedona, & Monument Valley were my favorite stops). All that being said, it’s great to be home!